It is unprecedented that a player have to compensate another for an injury incurred during a soccer game. But that is exactly what Mauro Camoranesi (naturalized Italian in 2006) is being forced to do. However, one would imagine there is a statute of limitations on such a case. It appears not, as the incident in question dates back to 1994. The victim: Pizzo, who was left with these injuries: The medical report indicated ruptured anterior cruciate ligament, posterior cruciate ligament tear, lateral collateral ligament rupture, rupture of internal and external meniscus of the knee capsule, biceps tendon, nerves several, bruises and tears, being about to be severed femoral artery. He never played again. From what I understand, whatever team contracts the player is the one who continues paying for medical expenses. There are also player unions that pay injured players should they be unable to continue playing.
Do you think that Camoranesi should have been forced to pay Pizzo now in 2010, or even back then in 1994? Should players be held liable for injuries committed on the field?
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